Professor Alberto Bernabe - The University of Illinois-Chicago School of Law
Thursday, March 17, 2011
Does using the plural "offices" when you only have one location violate the rules?
We have seen a number of cases where courts have found the use of "associates" in a firm's name deceptive if there is only one associate or if the attorney does not have any associates at all. A couple of days ago, I noticed a couple of attorneys refer to their firms as "The Law Offices of ....(so and so)..." I wonder if the word "offices" suggests there are multiple locations. Assuming there is only one, does the title of the firm violate the rules?